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NEW QUESTION # 63
A query should be generated when documentation contains a
- A. postoperative hospital-acquired condition
- B. principal diagnosis without an MCC
- C. problem list with symptoms related to the chief complaint
- D. diagnosis without clinical validation
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
A query should be generated when documentation contains a diagnosis without clinical validation, meaning that there is no evidence in the health record to support the diagnosis or that the diagnosis is inconsistent with other clinical indicators. A diagnosis without clinical validation may affect the accuracy and completeness of coding, quality measures, reimbursement, and patient care.
References: AHIMA/ACDIS. "Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice (2019 Update)." Journal of AHIMA 90, no. 2 (February 2019): 20-29.
NEW QUESTION # 64
Which of the following should be shared to ensure a clear sense of what clinical documentation integrity (CDI) is and the CDI practitioner's role within the organization?
- A. Milestones
- B. Productivity standards
- C. Mission
- D. Review schedule
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Sharing the mission of the CDI program should be done to ensure a clear sense of what CDI is and the CDI practitioner's role within the organization. The mission statement defines the purpose, goals, and values of the CDI program, and how it aligns with the organization's vision and strategy. The mission statement also communicates the benefits and expectations of the CDI program to various stakeholders, such as providers, executives, coders, quality staff, and patients. The mission statement can help establish the credibility, professionalism, and identity of the CDI practitioners, and guide their daily activities and decisions 2.
References: 1: AHIMA CDIP Exam Prep, Fourth Edition, p. 133 3 2: Mission CDI: Guiding goals, values, and principles 1
NEW QUESTION # 65
A clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) must determine the present on admission (POA) status of a stage IV sacral decubitus ulcer documented in the discharge summary. What is the first step that should be taken?
- A. Review the history and physical
- B. Query the attending provider
- C. Look for wound care documentation
- D. Read the nursing admission notes
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The first step that a clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) should take to determine the present on admission (POA) status of a stage IV sacral decubitus ulcer documented in the discharge summary is to review the history and physical (H&P) because it is the initial source of information about the patient's condition at the time of admission. The H&P should include a comprehensive physical examination that covers all body systems, including the skin. If the H&P documents the presence of a stage IV sacral decubitus ulcer, then the POA status is "yes". If the H&P does not mention the ulcer, then the CDIP should look for other sources of documentation, such as wound care notes, nursing notes, or progress notes, to see if the ulcer was identified or treated during the hospital stay. If there is no clear evidence of when the ulcer developed, then the CDIP should query the attending provider to clarify the POA status. (CDIP Exam Preparation Guide) References:
CDIP Exam Content Outline1
CDIP Exam Preparation Guide2
Present on Admission Reporting Guidelines3
NEW QUESTION # 66
Which of the following is an appropriate first step to address physicians with low query response rates?
- A. The physician receives a suspension until query responses are improved
- B. The medical staff review the physician's noncompliance to consider sanctions
- C. A meeting between the physician advisor/champion and the noncompliant physician
- D. An educational session between the clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) and physician
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
An appropriate first step to address physicians with low query response rates is an educational session between the clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) and physician because it provides an opportunity to explain the purpose and benefits of the query process, to identify and address any barriers or challenges to responding, and to offer feedback and guidance on how to improve query response rates. An educational session can also help to build rapport and trust between the CDIP and the physician, and to demonstrate respect and professionalism. (CDIP Exam Preparation Guide) References:
CDIP Exam Content Outline1
CDIP Exam Preparation Guide2
Understanding CDI Metrics3
NEW QUESTION # 67
When are concurrent queries initiated?
- A. Before patient is admitted
- B. After discharge of the patient
- C. While the patient is hospitalized
- D. After the health record has been coded
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 68
Which of these medical conditions would a clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) expect to be treated with Levophed?
- A. Acute kidney failure
- B. Acute respiratory failure
- C. Multiple sclerosis
- D. Septic shock
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Levophed is a brand name of norepinephrine, a medication that is similar to adrenaline and acts as a vasopressor, meaning that it constricts blood vessels and increases blood pressure. Levophed is indicated to raise blood pressure in adult patients with severe, acute hypotension (low blood pressure) that can occur with certain medical conditions or surgical procedures1. One of these conditions is septic shock, which is a life-threatening complication of sepsis, a systemic inflammatory response to infection. Septic shock is characterized by persistent hypotension despite adequate fluid resuscitation, along with signs of organ dysfunction and tissue hypoperfusion. Levophed is used as a first-line vasopressor agent in septic shock to restore adequate perfusion pressure and tissue oxygenation.
Acute respiratory failure, multiple sclerosis, and acute kidney failure are not indications for Levophed treatment. Acute respiratory failure is a condition in which the lungs cannot provide enough oxygen to the blood or remove enough carbon dioxide from the blood. It can be caused by various lung diseases, injuries, or infections. The treatment of acute respiratory failure depends on the underlying cause and the severity of the condition, but it may include oxygen therapy, mechanical ventilation, medications to treat infections or inflammation, or other supportive measures. Multiple sclerosis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the central nervous system, causing inflammation, demyelination, and axonal damage. The symptoms of multiple sclerosis vary depending on the location and extent of the nerve damage, but they may include vision problems, numbness, weakness, fatigue, cognitive impairment, or pain. The treatment of multiple sclerosis aims to reduce the frequency and severity of relapses, slow the progression of disability, and manage the symptoms. It may include immunomodulatory drugs, corticosteroids, symptomatic medications, physical therapy, or other interventions. Acute kidney failure is a condition in which the kidneys suddenly lose their ability to filter waste products and fluids from the blood. It can be caused by various factors that impair the blood flow to the kidneys, damage the kidney tissue, or block the urine output. The symptoms of acute kidney failure may include decreased urine output, fluid retention, nausea, confusion, or shortness of breath. The treatment of acute kidney failure depends on the underlying cause and the severity of the condition, but it may include fluid management, electrolyte replacement, dialysis, medications to treat infections or inflammation, or other supportive measures.
References:
CDIP Exam Preparation Guide, 2021 Edition. AHIMA Press. ISBN: 9781584268530 Levophed Uses, Side Effects & Warnings - Drugs.com Levophed (Norepinephrine Bitartrate): Uses, Dosage ... - RxList Levarterenol, Levophed (norepinephrine) dosing ... - Medscape
[Septic Shock: Practice Essentials ... - Medscape Reference]
[Surviving Sepsis Campaign: International Guidelines for ... - PubMed]
[Acute respiratory failure: MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia]
[Multiple sclerosis - Symptoms and causes - Mayo Clinic]
[Acute kidney failure - Symptoms and causes - Mayo Clinic]
NEW QUESTION # 69
Creating policies and procedures for the query process will help eliminate
- A. risk
- B. confusion
- C. indecision
- D. duplication
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Creating policies and procedures for the query process will help eliminate confusion among CDI staff, providers, coders, and other stakeholders regarding the purpose, scope, format, and expectations of the query process. Policies and procedures should be based on industry standards and best practices, and should be reviewed and updated regularly.
References: AHIMA/ACDIS. "Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice (2019 Update)." Journal of AHIMA 90, no. 2 (February 2019): 20-29.
NEW QUESTION # 70
Collaboration between the physician advisor/champion and the clinical documentation integrity practitioners (CDIPs) would likely include
- A. educating physicians
- B. developing query forms
- C. performing data analysis
- D. querying physicians
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Collaboration between the physician advisor/champion and the clinical documentation integrity practitioners (CDIPs) would likely include educating physicians on the importance and impact of clinical documentation on coding, reimbursement, quality measures, compliance, and patient care. The physician advisor/champion can act as a liaison between the CDIPs and the medical staff, provide feedback and guidance on query development and resolution, and facilitate peer-to-peer education sessions on documentation best practices and standards6 References: 1: https://www.ahima.org/media/owmhxbv1/cdip_contentoutline_2023_final.pdf 6:
https://my.ahima.org/store/product?id=67077
NEW QUESTION # 71
Which of the following criteria for clinical documentation means the content of the record is trustworthy, safe, and yielding the same result when repeated?
- A. Legible
- B. Precise
- C. Reliable
- D. Complete
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
According to AHIMA, clinical documentation is at the core of every patient encounter and it must be meaningful to accurately reflect the patient's disease burden and scope of services provided. In order to be meaningful, the documentation must be clear, consistent, complete, precise, reliable, timely, and legible1. Reliability is one of the criteria for clinical documentation that means the content of the record is trustworthy, safe, and yielding the same result when repeated1. Reliability ensures that the documentation is consistent with the clinical evidence and reasoning, and that it can be verified by other sources or methods. Reliability also implies that the documentation is free from errors, omissions, contradictions, or ambiguities that could compromise its validity or usefulness1.
References:
Clinical Documentation Integrity Education & Training | AHIMA1
NEW QUESTION # 72
Whether or not queries should be kept as a permanent part of the medical record is decided by
- A. state law
- B. organizational policy
- C. physician preference
- D. federal law
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
According to the AHIMA/ACDIS Query Practice Brief, whether or not queries should be kept as a permanent part of the medical record is decided by the organizational policy of each facility1. There is no federal or state law that mandates the retention of queries in the medical record, although some external reviewers may request copies of queries to validate the query wording and compliance2. Physician preference is not a valid factor in determining the query retention policy, as queries should be handled consistently across the organization3. Therefore, the correct answer is D. organizational policy. References:
Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice (2019 Update) - AHIMA Q&A: Develop policies regarding query retention | ACDIS Q&A: Keep query retention policies consistent | ACDIS
NEW QUESTION # 73
A clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) is reviewing an outpatient surgical chart. The patient underwent a laparoscopic appendectomy for acute gangrenous appendicitis. Which coding reference should be used for coding advice on correct assignment of the procedure code for proper ambulatory payment classification (APC) reimbursement?
- A. The Merck Manual
- B. AHA Coding Clinic for ICD-10-CM/PCS
- C. O AMA CPT Assistant
- D. O ICD-10-CM/PCS Codebook
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The coding reference that should be used for coding advice on correct assignment of the procedure code for proper ambulatory payment classification (APC) reimbursement is the AMA CPT Assistant. The CPT Assistant is the official source of guidance from the American Medical Association (AMA) on the proper use and interpretation of the Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) codes, which are used to report outpatient and professional services. The CPT Assistant provides clinical scenarios, frequently asked questions, coding tips, and updates on CPT coding changes. The CPT codes are used to determine the APC reimbursement for outpatient services under the Medicare Outpatient Prospective Payment System (OPPS). (CDIP Exam Preparation Guide) References:
CDIP Exam Content Outline1
CDIP Exam Preparation Guide2
AMA CPT Assistant3
Medicare Claims Processing Manual Chapter 4 - Part B Hospital (Including Inpatient Hospital Part B and OPPS)
NEW QUESTION # 74
Which of the following may make physicians lose respect for clinical documentation integrity (CDI) efforts and disengage?
- A. CDI practitioners sending multiple queries to hospitalist physicians
- B. The physician advisor/champion's interventions with noncompliant physicians
- C. Inconsistent clinically relevant queries
- D. Providing many lectures, newsletters, tip sheets, and pocket cards for physician education
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Inconsistent clinically relevant queries may make physicians lose respect for CDI efforts and disengage because they may perceive them as irrelevant, redundant, or contradictory. Clinically relevant queries are those that affect the quality of care, patient safety, severity of illness, risk of mortality, or reimbursement.
Inconsistent queries may result from lack of standardization, conflicting guidelines, poor communication, or lack of clinical validation. To avoid inconsistency, CDI practitioners should follow best practices such as using evidence-based criteria, adhering to query policies and procedures, collaborating with coding and quality staff, and seeking feedback from physicians and physician advisors 2.
References: 1: AHIMA CDIP Exam Prep, Fourth Edition, p. 136 3 2: Proactive CDI: Tackling the Problem of Physician Engagement 4
NEW QUESTION # 75
AHIMA suggests which of the following for an organization to consider as physician response rate and agreement rate?
- A. 75%/75%
- B. 70%/50%
- C. 80%/80%
- D. 80%/40%
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
AHIMA suggests that an organization should consider a physician response rate of 80% and an agreement rate of 80% as benchmarks for CDI program performance. These rates indicate the level of physician engagement and documentation accuracy in relation to CDI queries.
References: AHIMA. "Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice (2019 Update)." Journal of AHIMA 90, no. 2 (February 2019): 20-29.
NEW QUESTION # 76
Which of the following clinical documentation integrity (CDI) dashboard metrics is frequently used to help evaluate the credibility of CDI practitioner queries and the success of the CDI program?
- A. Provider response rate
- B. CDI agreement rate
- C. Provider agreement rate
- D. CDI query rate
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The provider agreement rate is the percentage of queries that result in a change in the documentation or coding that is consistent with the query. It is a measure of the accuracy and appropriateness of the queries, as well as the provider's acceptance of the CDI program's recommendations. A high provider agreement rate indicates that the CDI practitioners are asking relevant and compliant queries that improve the quality and specificity of the documentation. The other options are not directly related to the credibility of the queries or the success of the CDI program. The CDI agreement rate is the percentage of queries that agree with the coder's final DRG assignment. The CDI query rate is the percentage of records that generate a query from the CDI practitioner.
The provider response rate is the percentage of queries that receive a response from the provider.
NEW QUESTION # 77
A hospital clinical documentation integrity (CDI) director suspects physicians are over-using electronic copy and paste in patient records, a practice that increases the risk of fraudulent insurance billings. A documentation integrity project may be needed. What is the first step the CDI director should take?
- A. Gather data on the incidence of inaccurate record documentation
- B. Bring together a team of physicians and informatics specialists
- C. Recommend the physicians to be involved in the project
- D. Alert senior leadership to the record documentation problem
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The first step the CDI director should take is to gather data on the incidence of inaccurate record documentation because it is important to establish the baseline and scope of the problem, as well as to identify the potential causes and consequences of over-using electronic copy and paste. Data collection can help to measure the frequency, severity, and impact of documentation errors, such as inconsistencies, redundancies, contradictions, or omissions. Data collection can also help to determine the best methods and tools for conducting the documentation integrity project, such as audits, surveys, interviews, or software applications. (CDIP Exam Preparation Guide1) References:
CDIP Exam Content Outline2
CDIP Exam Preparation Guide1
NEW QUESTION # 78
A 50-year-old male patient was admitted with complaint of 3-day history of shortness of breath. Vital signs:
BP 165/90, P 90, T 99.9.F, O2 sat 95% on room air. Patient
has history of asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and hypertension (HTN). His medicines are Albuterol and Norvasc. CXR showed chronic lung disease and left lower lobe infiltrate. Labs: WBC 9.5 with 65% segs. Physician documented that patient has asthma flair and admitted with decompensated COPD, ordered IV steroids, O2 at 2L/min via nasal cannula, Albuterol inhalers 4x per day, and Clindamycin. Patient improved and was discharged 3 days later. Which action would have the highest impact on the patient's severity of illness (SOI) and risk of mortality (ROM)?
- A. Query the physician to clarify if patient has acute COPD exacerbation.
- B. Query the physician to clarify for clinical significance of the CXR results.
- C. Query the physician to clarify for type of COPD such as severe asthma.
- D. Query the physician to clarify if CXR result means patient has pneumonia.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 79
A key physician approaches the director of the coding department about the new emphasis associated with clinical documentation integrity (CDI). The physician does not support the program and believes the initiative will encourage inappropriate billing.
How should the director respond to the concerns?
- A. Develop an administrative panel to oversee CDI process
- B. Refer the physician to the finance department to discuss required billing changes
- C. Involve the physician advisor/champion in addressing the medical staff's concerns
- D. Inform the physician that changes must be made
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The director should involve the physician advisor/champion in addressing the medical staff's concerns because the physician advisor/champion is a key member of the CDI team who can provide clinical expertise, education, and leadership to promote CDI among physicians. The physician advisor/champion can help to explain the goals and benefits of CDI, such as improving patient care quality, accuracy of documentation, and appropriate reimbursement. The physician advisor/champion can also address any misconceptions or fears that the physicians may have about CDI, such as encouraging inappropriate billing or increasing their workload.
The physician advisor/champion can serve as a liaison between the CDI team and the medical staff, and foster a culture of collaboration and trust.
References:
CDIP Exam Content Outline (https://www.ahima.org/media/1z0x0x1a/cdip-exam-content-outline.pdf) CDIP Exam Preparation Guide (https://my.ahima.org/store/product?id=67077)
NEW QUESTION # 80
A 90-year-old female patient was admitted to emergency room c/o nausea and vomiting x2 days. Vital signs:
BP 130/72, P 86, R 22, T 99.8F, O2 sat 94% on room air. Patient has a history of cerebral vascular accident (CVA) and difficulty swallowing. CXR revealed right lower lobe infiltrate. Labs: WBC 12.0 with 71% segs. Physician documents patient with a history of CVA and difficulty swallowing. CXR revealed right lower lobe infiltrate, diagnosis: pneumonia.
Aspiration precautions and IV Clindamycin
ordered. Patient was discharged 3 days later with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Clarification is needed to determine which of the following is clinically indicated.
- A. Aspiration pneumonia
- B. Complex pneumonia
- C. Pneumonia, a sequela of CVA
- D. Simple pneumonia
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Aspiration pneumonia is a type of pneumonia that occurs when food, saliva, liquids, or vomit is breathed into the lungs or airways leading to the lungs, causing an infection or inflammation. Aspiration pneumonia is more likely to occur in people who have difficulty swallowing, such as those with a history of CVA2. In this case, the patient has a history of CVA and difficulty swallowing, and presents with nausea and vomiting, which are risk factors for aspiration. The CXR reveals a right lower lobe infiltrate, which is a common finding in aspiration pneumonia3. The physician documents pneumonia as the diagnosis, but does not specify the type or cause. Therefore, clarification is needed to determine if aspiration pneumonia is clinically indicated, as it would affect the coding and reimbursement of the case. Aspiration pneumonia is coded as ICD-10-CM code J69.x Pneumonitis due to solids and liquids, with a fourth digit required to specify the inhaled substance4.
References:
CDI Week 2020 Q&A: CDI and key performance indicators1
Mayo Clinic: Aspiration pneumonia2
Medscape: Aspiration Pneumonia3
ICD-10-CM Diagnosis Code J69.x: Pneumonitis due to solids and liquids4
NEW QUESTION # 81
Which of the following organizations should a clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) monitor?
- A. Office of Inspector General (OIG), Accreditation Commission for Healthcare (ACHC), Recovery Auditors (RAs)
- B. Center for Improvement in Healthcare (CIHQ), Accreditation Commission for Healthcare (ACHC), Recovery Auditors (RAs)
- C. Program for Evaluating Payment Patterns Electronic Report (PEPPER), Recovery Auditors (RAs), Center for Improvement in Healthcare (CIHQ)
- D. Recovery Auditors (RAs), Program for Evaluating Payment Patterns Electronic Report (PEPPER), Office of Inspector General (OIG)
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The organizations that a clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) should monitor are Recovery Auditors (RAs), Program for Evaluating Payment Patterns Electronic Report (PEPPER), and Office of Inspector General (OIG). These organizations are involved in auditing, reviewing, and investigating the accuracy, completeness, and compliance of clinical documentation, coding, billing, and reimbursement practices of hospitals and other healthcare providers. The CDIP should monitor these organizations to stay updated on their policies, guidelines, findings, recommendations, and actions that may affect the CDI program and the hospital's performance and reputation. [3][3] References: 1:
https://www.ahima.org/media/owmhxbv1/cdip_contentoutline_2023_final.pdf [3][3]:
https://my.ahima.org/store/product?id=67077
NEW QUESTION # 82
Which entity has the following regulation?
A medical history and physical examination be completed and documented for each patient no more than 30 days before or 24 hours after admission or registration, but prior to surgery or a procedure requiring anesthesia services.
- A. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services
- B. Office of the National Coordinator for Health Information Technology
- C. Office of Inspector General
- D. Office for Civil Rights
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The entity that has the following regulation is the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS), which is the federal agency that oversees the Medicare and Medicaid programs and sets the Conditions of Participation (CoPs) and Conditions for Coverage (CfCs) for health care organizations that participate in these programs.
The regulation that requires a medical history and physical examination be completed and documented for each patient no more than 30 days before or 24 hours after admission or registration, but prior to surgery or a procedure requiring anesthesia services, is part of the CoPs for Hospitals, which are located in 42 CFR §
482.24. This regulation was revised in 2007 to align with the Joint Commission's standard and to provide more flexibility and consistency for hospitals and practitioners. (CDIP Exam Preparation Guide) References:
CDIP Exam Content Outline1
CDIP Exam Preparation Guide2
42 CFR § 482.243
NEW QUESTION # 83
Which of the following falls under the False Claims Act?
- A. Unbundling services
- B. Missing charges
- C. Missing modifiers
- D. Missing diagnosis codes
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Unbundling services falls under the False Claims Act because it is a form of coding fraud that involves billing separately for components of a related group of procedures or tests that should be billed as a single code. For example, if a provider performs a comprehensive metabolic panel, which is a blood test that measures several components of the blood, such as glucose, electrolytes, and liver enzymes, and bills for each component individually instead of using the single code for the panel, that is unbundling. Unbundling services can result in overpayment by the government and can violate the False Claims Act, which prohibits submitting false or fraudulent claims for payment to the government, including the Medicare and Medicaid programs. Violators of the False Claims Act can face civil penalties of up to three times the amount of the false claim plus an additional $11,000 per claim 23.
References: 1: AHIMA CDIP Exam Prep, Fourth Edition, p. 133 4 2: Coding Fraud | VSG 5 3: False Claims Act | OIG 2
NEW QUESTION # 84
A hospital administrator wants to initiate a clinical documentation integrity (CDI) program and has developed a steering committee to identify performance metrics. The CDI manager expects to use a case mix index as one of the metrics. Which other metric will need to be measured?
- A. Assessment of APR-DRGs with capture of CC or MCC
- B. Assessment of CC/MCC capture rates
- C. Comparison of severity of illness with the CC capture rates
- D. Comparison of risk of mortality with diagnostic related group capture rates
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
A CC/MCC capture rate is a metric that measures the percentage of cases that have at least one complication or comorbidity (CC) or major complication or comorbidity (MCC) coded in the medical record. This metric is important for a CDI program because CCs and MCCs affect the severity of illness, risk of mortality, and reimbursement of the cases under the Medicare Severity-Diagnosis Related Group (MS-DRG) system. A higher CC/MCC capture rate indicates a more accurate and complete documentation of the patient's condition and the resources used to treat them. A CDI program can use this metric to monitor the effectiveness of its queries, education, and feedback to the providers and coders. A CDI program can also compare its CC/MCC capture rate with national or regional benchmarks to identify areas of improvement or best practices 2.
References: 1: AHIMA CDIP Exam Prep, Fourth Edition, p. 133 3 2: The Natural History of CDI Programs: A Metric-Based Model 4
NEW QUESTION # 85
In order to best demonstrate the impact of clinical documentation on severity of illness and risk of mortality, which of the following examples is the most effective for physicians in a hospital?
- A. Examples from the hospital's actual cases
- B. The latest Medicare Provider and Analysis Review data
- C. Explanations on how severity of illness and risk of mortality impact reimbursement
- D. Emphasize the Medicare requirements for documentation
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
In order to best demonstrate the impact of clinical documentation on severity of illness and risk of mortality, examples from the hospital's actual cases are the most effective for physicians in a hospital. Examples from the hospital's actual cases can show how specific documentation elements, such as diagnoses, procedures, complications, comorbidities, and present on admission indicators, can affect the severity of illness and risk of mortality scores of the patients, as well as the hospital's performance and reputation. Examples from the hospital's actual cases can also provide feedback and education to the physicians on how to improve their documentation practices and standards. References: :
https://www.ahima.org/media/owmhxbv1/cdip_contentoutline_2023_final.pdf :
https://my.ahima.org/store/product?id=67077
NEW QUESTION # 86
When there is a discrepancy between the clinical documentation integrity practitioner's (CDIP's) working DRG and the coder's final DRG, which of the following is considered a fundamental element that must be in place for a successful resolution?
- A. Executive oversight
- B. Physician advisor/champion involvement
- C. Physician and CDIP interaction
- D. Coder and CDIP interaction
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
According to the AHIMA/ACDIS Query Practice Brief, one of the fundamental elements that must be in place for a successful DRG discrepancy resolution is a collaborative and respectful interaction between the coder and the CDIP1. The coder and the CDIP should communicate effectively and timely to identify and resolve any DRG mismatches, using evidence-based guidelines, coding conventions, and query standards1. The coder and the CDIP should also share their knowledge and expertise with each other, and seek clarification from the provider or the physician advisor/champion when necessary1. The other options are not considered fundamental elements for DRG discrepancy resolution, although they may be helpful or supportive in some situations. References:
Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice (2019 Update) - AHIMA
NEW QUESTION # 87
......
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