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NEW QUESTION # 295
Which of the following is MOST important information to review when developing plans for using emerging
technologies?
- A. Risk register
- B. Organizational strategic plan
- C. Existing IT environment
- D. IT strategic plan
Answer: B
Explanation:
The most important information to review when developing plans for using emerging technologies is the
organizational strategic plan. The organizational strategic plan is a document that defines the vision, mission,
goals, and objectives of the organization. It also outlines the strategies, actions, and resources that are needed
to achieve them. The organizational strategic plan provides the direction, alignment, and guidance for the use
of emerging technologies, and ensures that they are aligned with and support the organizational needs and
priorities. The other options are not as important as the organizational strategic plan, as they are related to the
current state, specific area, or potential issues of the use of emerging technologies, not the overall purpose and
value of the use of emerging technologies. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study
Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.2: IT Risk Identification Methods, page 19.
NEW QUESTION # 296
Thomas is a key stakeholder in your project. Thomas has requested several changes to the project scope for the project you are managing.
Upon review of the proposed changes, you have discovered that these new requirements are laden with risks and you recommend to the change control board that the changes be excluded from the project scope. The change control board agrees with you. What component of the change control system communicates the approval or denial of a proposed change request?
- A. Integrated change control
- B. Explanation:
Integrated change control is responsible for facilitating, documenting, and dispersing information on a proposed change to the project scope. Integrated change control is a way to manage the changes incurred during a project. It is a method that manages reviewing the suggestions for changes and utilizing the tools and techniques to evaluate whether the change should be approved or rejected. Integrated change control is a primary component of the project's change control system that examines the affect of a proposed change on the entire project. - C. Scope change control system
- D. Change log
- E. Configuration management system
Answer: A
Explanation:
is incorrect. The scope change control system controls changes that are permitted to the project scope. Answer: A is incorrect. The configuration management system controls and documents changes to the project's product Answer: C is incorrect. The change log documents approved changes in the project scope.
NEW QUESTION # 297
A risk practitioner learns that the organization s industry is experiencing a trend of rising security incidents.
Which of the following is the BEST course of action?
- A. Respond to organizational security threats.
- B. Evaluate the relevance of the evolving threats.
- C. Research industry published studies.
- D. Review past internal audit results.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A risk practitioner should evaluate the relevance of the evolving threats to the organization's industry, as this is the best course of action to understand the current and future risk landscape, and to align the risk management strategy accordingly. By evaluating the relevance of the evolving threats, the risk practitioner can determine the impact and likelihood of the threats affecting the organization's objectives, assets, and processes, and prioritize the most critical and urgent risks. The risk practitioner can also identify the gaps and weaknesses in the existing controls, and recommend appropriate risk response measures to mitigate the threats.
The other options are not as good as evaluating the relevance of the evolving threats, because they do not address the root cause of the rising security incidents, but rather focus on the symptoms or consequences of the incidents. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.1, page
85.
NEW QUESTION # 298
Which of the following would MOST likely cause management to unknowingly accept excessive risk?
- A. Satisfactory audit results
- B. Inaccurate risk ratings
- C. Risk tolerance being set too low
- D. Lack of preventive controls
Answer: B
Explanation:
Inaccurate risk ratings would most likely cause management to unknowingly accept excessive risk, as they
may not reflect the true level of risk exposure and impact, and may lead to inappropriate risk responses or
decisions. Satisfactory audit results, risk tolerance being set too low, and lack of preventive controls are not
the most likely causes, as they may indicate a different risk management issue, such as over-reliance on audit
assurance, misalignment of risk tolerance and appetite, or insufficient risk mitigation,
respectively. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 109.
NEW QUESTION # 299
Which of the following items is considered as an objective of the three dimensional model within the framework described in COSO ERM?
- A. Control environment
- B. Financial reporting
- C. Risk assessment
- D. Monitoring
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The COSO ERM (Enterprise Risk Management) frame work is a 3-dimensional model. The dimensions and their components include:
Strategic Objectives - includes strategic, operations, reporting, and compliance.
Risk Components - includes Internal Environment, Objectives settings, Event identification, Risk
assessment, Risk response, Control activities, Information and communication, and monitoring.
Organizational Levels - include subsidiary, business unit, division, and entity-level.
The COSO ERM framework contains eight risk components:
Internal Environment
Objective Settings
Event Identification
Risk Assessment
Risk Response
Control Activities
Information and Communication
Monitoring
Section 404 of the Sarbanes-Oley act specifies a three dimensional model- COSO ERM, comprised of Internal control components, Internal control objectives, and organization entities. All the items listed are components except Financial reporting which is an internal control objective.
Incorrect Answers:
A, C, D: They are the Internal control components, not the Internal control objectives.
NEW QUESTION # 300
When it appears that a project risk is going to happen, what is this term called?
- A. Contingency response
- B. Threshold
- C. Trigger
- D. Issue
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Volume C
Explanation:
A trigger is a warning sign or a condition that a risk event is likely to occur within the project.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Issues are events that come about as a result of risk events. Risks become issues only after they have actually occurred.
B: A contingency response is a pre-planned response for a risk event, such as a rollback plan.
D: A threshold is a limit that the risk passes to actually become an issue in the project.
NEW QUESTION # 301
An organization has procured a managed hosting service and just discovered the location is likely to be flooded every 20 years. Of the following, who should be notified of this new information FIRST.
- A. The site manager who is required to provide annual risk assessments under the contract
- B. The data center manager who is also employed under the managed hosting services contract
- C. The risk owner who also owns the business service enabled by this infrastructure
- D. The chief information officer (CIO) who is responsible for the hosted services
Answer: C
Explanation:
The risk owner is the person who has the authority and accountability to manage a specific risk and its associated controls. The risk owner is also responsible for ensuring that the risk is within the acceptable level and that the risk response is effective and efficient. In this case, the risk owner is also the owner of the business service that depends on the managed hosting service. Therefore, the risk owner should be notified of the new information about the flood risk first, as they have the most interest and influence on the risk and its impact on the business objectives. The risk owner can then decide on the appropriate actions to take, such as reviewing the contract terms, requesting additional controls, or changing the service provider. The other options are not the correct answers because they are not the primary stakeholders of the risk and its consequences. The data center manager is an employee of the managed hosting service provider, not the organization that procured the service. The data center manager may not have the authority or the incentive to address the flood risk or inform the organization. The site manager is also an employee of the managed hosting service provider, and their role is to conduct annual risk assessments under the contract. The site manager may not be aware of the new information or have the responsibility to communicate it to the organization. The CIO is the senior executive who oversees the IT strategy and operations of the organization. The CIO may have a general interest in the managed hosting service and its risks, but they are not the direct owner or manager of the specific risk or the business service that relies on the service.
References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 32-331; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 702
NEW QUESTION # 302
Which of the following BEST indicates effective information security incident management?
- A. Monthly trend of information security-related incidents
- B. Frequency of information security incident response plan testing
- C. Percentage of high risk security incidents
- D. Average time to identify critical information security incidents
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 303
You are the project manager of HFD project. You have identified several project risks. You have adopted alternatives to deal with these risks which do not attempt to reduce the probability of a risk event or its impacts. Which of the following response have you implemented?
- A. Avoidance
- B. Explanation:
Contingent response strategy, also known as contingency planning, involves adopting alternatives to deal with the risks in case of their occurrence. Unlike the mitigation planning in which mitigation looks to reduce the probability of the risk and its impact, contingency planning doesn't necessarily attempt to reduce the probability of a risk event or its impacts. Contingency comes into action when the risk event actually occurs. - C. is incorrect. Risk mitigation attempts to reduce the probability of a risk event and its impacts to an acceptable level. Risk mitigation can utilize various forms of control carefully integrated together. The main control types are:
Managerial(e.g.,policies)
Technical (e.g., tools such as firewalls and intrusion detection systems)
Operational (e.g., procedures, separation of duties)
Preparedness activities - D. Contingent response
- E. Mitigation
- F. is incorrect. Risk acceptance means that no action is taken relative to a particular risk;
loss is accepted if it occurs. If an enterprise adopts a risk acceptance, it should carefully consider
who can accept the risk. Risk should be accepted only by senior management in relationship with
senior management and the board. There are two alternatives to the acceptance strategy, passive
and active.
Passive acceptance means that enterprise has made no plan to avoid or mitigate the risk but
willing to accept the consequences of the risk.
Active acceptance is the second strategy and might include developing contingency plans and
reserves to deal with risks. - G. Acceptance
Answer: B,C,D,F
Explanation:
is incorrect. Risk avoidance means to evade risk altogether, eliminate the cause of the
risk event, or change the project plan to protect the project objectives from the risk event.
NEW QUESTION # 304
The BEST way for an organization to ensure that servers are compliant to security policy is
to review:
- A. configuration settings.
- B. change logs.
- C. anti-malware compliance.
- D. server access logs.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Reviewing configuration settings is the best way for an organization to ensure that servers are compliant to
security policy, because it helps to check and verify that the servers are configured and maintained according
to the established security standards and guidelines, and that any deviations or violations are identified and
corrected. A configuration setting is a parameter or option that defines the behavior or functionality of a
server, such as a system, an application, or a service. A security policy is a document that outlines the security
objectives, principles, and rules that the organization and its employees must follow, and the consequences of
non-compliance. Reviewing configuration settings is the best way, as it helps to ensure that the servers are
secure and compliant, and that any security risks or issues are detected and resolved. Reviewing change logs,
server access logs, and anti-malware compliance are all possible ways to ensure that servers are compliant to
security policy, but they are not the best way, as they do not provide a comprehensive and consistent view of
the configuration settings and their compliance status. References = Risk and Information Systems Control
Study Manual, Chapter 5, Section 5.3.2, page 200
NEW QUESTION # 305
You are the risk official of your enterprise. Your enterprise takes important decisions without considering risk credential information and is also unaware of external requirements for risk management and integration with enterprise risk management. In which of the following risk management capability maturity levels does your enterprise exists?
- A. Level 4
- B. Level 0
- C. Level 5
- D. Level 1
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
0 nonexistent: An enterprise's risk management capability maturity level is 0 when:
The enterprise does not recognize the need to consider the risk management or the business impact
from IT risk.
Decisions involving risk lack credible information.
Awareness of external requirements for risk management and integration with enterprise risk
management (ERM) do not exists.
Incorrect Answers:
A, C, D: These all are much higher levels of the risk management capability maturity model and in all these enterprise do take decisions considering the risk credential information. Moreover, in these levels enterprise is aware of external requirements for risk management and integrate with ERM.
NEW QUESTION # 306
A risk practitioner is summarizing the results of a high-profile risk assessment sponsored by senior management. The BEST way to support risk-based decisions by senior management would be to:
- A. quantify key risk indicators (KRls).
- B. map findings to objectives.
- C. recommend risk tolerance thresholds.
- D. provide a quantified detailed analysts.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 307
An organization is considering outsourcing user administration controls tor a critical system. The potential vendor has offered to perform quarterly sett-audits of its controls instead of having annual independent audits.
Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to me risk practitioner?
- A. The vendor will not achieve best practices
- B. The vendor will not ensure against control failure
- C. Lack of a risk-based approach to access control
- D. The controls may not be properly tested
Answer: D
Explanation:
The greatest concern for the risk practitioner when the potential vendor has offered to perform quarterly self-audits of its controls instead of having annual independent audits is that the controls may not be properly tested. Self-audits are audits that are performed by the vendor itself, without the involvement of an external or independent party. Self-audits may not be reliable, objective, or consistent, as the vendor may have biases, conflicts of interest, or lack of expertise in auditing its own controls. Self-audits may also not follow the same standards, criteria, or methodologies as independent audits, and may not provide sufficient assurance or evidence of the effectiveness of the controls. The other options are not as concerning as the possibility of improper testing of the controls, as they are related to the outcomes, expectations, or approaches of the controls, not the quality or validity of the controls. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.3: IT Control Assessment, page 6
NEW QUESTION # 308
Which of the following role carriers will decide the Key Risk Indicator of the enterprise?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
- A. Business leaders
- B. Human resource
- C. Senior management
- D. Chief financial officer
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Section: Volume A
Explanation:
An enterprise may have hundreds of risk indicators such as logs, alarms and reports. The CRISC will usually need to work with senior management and business leaders to determine which risk indicators will be monitored on a regular basis and be recognized as KRIs.
Incorrect Answers:
C, D: Chief financial officer and human resource only overview common risk view, but are not involved in risk based decisions.
NEW QUESTION # 309
An organization's internal audit department is considering the implementation of robotics process automation (RPA) to automate certain continuous auditing tasks. Who would own the risk associated with ineffective design of the software bots?
- A. Chief information officer (CIO)
- B. Lead auditor
- C. Chief audit executive (CAE)
- D. Project manager
Answer: D
Explanation:
Robotics process automation (RPA) is the use of software robots to perform repetitive, rules-based tasks that interact with multiple applications. RPA can help internal audit departments automate certain continuous auditing tasks, such as data extraction, validation, analysis, and reporting. RPA can improve the efficiency, quality, and coverage of internal audit activities, and provide greater insight and value to the business.
However, RPA also involves certain risks, such as errors, failures, security breaches, or compliance issues, that need to be identified, assessed, and managed. The risk associated with ineffective design of the software bots is the possibility and impact of the bots not functioning as intended, or producing inaccurate or unreliable results. The risk owner of this risk is the person or entity who has the authority and responsibility for managing the risk. The risk owner should be able to define the risk appetite, assess the risk level, select and implement the risk response, monitor and report the risk status, and ensure the risk alignment with the project objectives and strategy. The risk owner of the risk associated with ineffective design of the software bots is the project manager, who is the person in charge of planning, executing, monitoring, and closing the RPA project.
The project manager understands the project scope, requirements, budget, timeline, and deliverables, and the potential consequences of ineffective design of the software bots. The project manager also has the resources and incentives to address the risk effectively and efficiently. Therefore, the project manager is the most appropriate risk owner of the risk associated with ineffective design of the software bots. References = Robotic Process Automation for Internal Audit, p. 3-4, Adopting robotic process automation in Internal Audit, Robotic Process Automation (RPA) - Internal Audit Use and Risks.
NEW QUESTION # 310
Which of the following is MOST critical to the design of relevant risk scenarios?
- A. The scenarios are linked to probable organizational situations.
- B. The scenarios are mapped to incident management capabilities.
- C. The scenarios are aligned with risk management capabilities.
- D. The scenarios are based on past incidents.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 311
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